| TWO MEN - TW0 RESULTS & ALL MEN AFFECTED |
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Those to whom death passed which was all men did not have to know about Adam
or believe in Adam to succumb to the consequence of sin. For as in Adam all die… (1
Cor. 15:22)
"For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not
sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him
who was to come." (Romans 5:13-14 NKJV)
Did people have a choice about whether they were considered sinners and
unbelievers? From these verses then, what can be concluded about people who
believed but still had Adam’s sin imputed to them?Did they not still succumb to
death?
This verse says that before the Law sin was not imputed, and when the Law was
given sin was imputed. But at the time of Grace sin again is not imputed because
the debt for all mankind had been paid in Christ. Death reigned from Adam which
was sin’s entrance to Moses which was the beginning of Redemption. In that plan
of Redemption was the giving of the Law defining sin and God’s plan to remove sin
and its consequences.
One translation says it like this: “Sin entered the human experience through one
man and death is the consequences of sin, so since all men die, all have participated
in sin (due to being in Adam.) Obviously, sin was in existence before God gave the
rules but there can be no infraction of the rules until the rules are made”. (Romans
5:12-20, The Heart of Paul, Ben Johnson)
"The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, Behold! The Lamb of
God, who takes away the sin of the world." (John 1:29 NKJV)
So what sin is John saying Jesus came to take away?
"And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent the Son as Savior of the
world." (1 John 4:14 NKJV) According to John, who did Jesus come to save and
does this verse say Jesus would be the Savior only of those who believe in Him, or
of the entire world?
"For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son" (John 5:
22 NKJV)
Look at the phrase, “but has committed all judgment to the Son.” What was given
to the Son, was it the act of judging or the judgment of the world (the judgment
the world was to receive)? Does He judge the world or receive the judgment placed
on the world? Many verses indicate this is an act of receiving judgment not
decreeing judgment. (John 9:39, John 8:14-16).
"Now is the judgment of this world: now the ruler of this world will be cast out. And
I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself." (John 12:31-32
NKJV)
When did Jesus say the judgment of the world was to occur? Young’s Literal
Translation reads “For judgment, I, to this world did come.” (John 9:39) The
judgment of this world was placed on Christ at the time of His “being lifted up”.
The church has made Jesus the Judge of this world when in fact He received the
judgment placed on this world.
How fast can we quote John 3:16? But we forget John 3:17 which says: “For God
did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world
through Him might be saved”. "And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I
judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world." (John 12:
47 KJV)
"That is, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world to Himself, not imputing their
trespasses to them, and has committed to us the word of reconciliation. Now then
we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God were pleading through us; we
implore you on Christ’s behalf, be reconciled to God. For He (God) made Him
(Jesus) who knew no sin to be sin for us, (so) that we might become the
righteousness of God in Him (Jesus)." (2 Corinthians 5:19-21 NKJV)
Does Paul teach that God was reconciling only believers or reconciling the entire
world to Himself?
And according to this verse, were people made "the righteousness of God" through
their belief, or through the fact that Christ was made to be sin? Notice who was
reconciling, it was God the Father in Christ reconciling the world. It was not Jesus
appeasing an angry God. It was Father God who lovingly and fully redeemed His
creation. And He did this “while we were yet sinners” before belief was an issue.
(Romans 5:7-8)
"Therefore as through one man’s offense judgment came to all men, resulting in
condemnation, even so through one Man’s righteous act the free gift came to all
men, resulting in justification of life.” (Romans 5:18 NKJV)
How many people were affected because of Adam’s disobedience?
How many people were justified, made and declared righteous because of Jesus’
obedience?
God is love. Most people are familiar with this statement but many also have
wondered how if God is love how can He can punish people in this life or in the next
and do it forever.
God is LOVE – He is love’s very essence and definition. Since God is love and He so
loved, He did not leave it up to us to decide whether or not we will accept His love.
God’s plan for His Son was as Redeemer and Savior in order that He might redeem
and save the world. He did not fail. Everyone has been redeemed by the blood of
the Lamb - with or without their belief.
Does that sound too good to be true? The gospel is good news, and there is no bad
news in the good news. And it’s in this glorious gospel that we learn of the love God
has for us. Love enough to bring us to His side through His heart—without anything
required on our part, giving us a picture of God’s Amazing Grace.
Therefore, just as through one man
(Adam) sin entered the world, and
death through sin (death as a
result of sin), and thus death
spread to all men, because all
sinned. (Romans 5:12 NKJV)
According to this verse, how did
death enter the world and to whom
did it pass?
Did these people to whom death
passed have to know about Adam,
or believe in Adam to become dead,
or are they dead because of Adam?
Sin entered creation by man (and
not by some already fallen angel)
resulting in death.
Death, because of sin, passed
upon all men as the consequence of
sin.
(Adam) sin entered the world, and
death through sin (death as a
result of sin), and thus death
spread to all men, because all
sinned. (Romans 5:12 NKJV)
According to this verse, how did
death enter the world and to whom
did it pass?
Did these people to whom death
passed have to know about Adam,
or believe in Adam to become dead,
or are they dead because of Adam?
Sin entered creation by man (and
not by some already fallen angel)
resulting in death.
Death, because of sin, passed
upon all men as the consequence of
sin.
| Image courtesy Thom Lester You can find more images at his website: www.accrete.com Thanks, Thom |
Universal death for all men then why not universal salvation for the same all.
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